Bộ đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2023 – 2024 sách Kết nối tri thức với cuộc sống 5 Đề kiểm tra giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 – Global Success (Có đáp án + Ma trận)

Bộ đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2023 – 2024 sách Kết nối tri thức với cuộc sống gồm 5 đề thi, có đáp án, hướng dẫn chấm và bảng ma trận kèm theo, giúp thầy cô xây dựng đề thi giữa kì 1 cho học sinh của mình theo chương trình mới.

Với 5 Đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 – Global Success, các em dễ dàng luyện giải đề, nắm vững cấu trúc đề thi để đạt kết quả cao trong kỳ thi giữa kì 1 năm 2023 – 2024 sắp tới. Ngoài ra, có thể tham khảo thêm đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Toán, Ngữ văn, Công nghệ, Khoa học tự nhiên, Lịch sử – Địa lí. Vậy mời thầy cô và các em cùng theo dõi bài viết dưới đây của Wikihoc.com:

Đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2023 – 2024 – Đề 1

Đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 – Global Success

Trường THCS:………..

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ I NĂM HỌC 2023 – 2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6 – THỜI GIAN 60’

A. LISTENING

Question 1. Listen then circle the right answers: A, B or C (1.0pt)

1. Who went with Sarah?

2. Which is Sarah’s favourite present?

3. What does Sarah like most at the circus?

4. How are they going to get there?

5. What are they going to eat the the circus?

Question 2. You will hear a conversation between 2 people. Listen and complete questions 1-5.

There’s one example (1.0pt)

Name: Mary Smith

1. How old ………………………….……….…………

2. Hair colour ……………………..…………:………..

3. Eye colour. …………………..:……….……………

4. How many brothers ………………:…………………

5. How many sisters: ………………..………………….

B – VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR

Question 1. Choose the option (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following sentences (3.0pts).

1. Tim: What’s your new friend like? Bella: __________

A. She has blond hair
B. She’s very kind
C. She’s tall
D. She’s black

2. Duong: Can you pass me the book, please? Phuc: “ ……………….”

A. Yes, please
B. Yes, sure
C. Yes, I can
D. No, I don’t mind

3. Nga: Would you like to have a picnic? Lan: “…………………………………….”

A. Oh, sorry, I can’t
B. Yes, please
C. No, I don’t
D. No, I wouldn’t

4. My mother__________ the gardening every Saturday.

A. does
B. works
C. makes
D. plays

5. Tommy: __________ bedrooms does your apartment have? Jenny: It has two bedrooms.

A. How many
B. How
C. Where
D. What

6. The national library is__________ the bank and the hospital.

A. on
B. in
C. among
D. between

7. There are many dirty clothes on the floor. It is such a _______ room.

A. messy
B. tidy
C. clean
D. clear

8. __________ the right of the room, you will see a big bookshelf.

A. To
B. In
C. At
D. Of

9. Nam is very smart. He always answers the teacher’s question well.

A. happy
B. clever
C. lazy
D. hardworking

10. Hoa is a good friend. She always shares things with her classmate.

A. gives
B. needs
C. takes
D. wants

11. This is Lan. house is new.

A. My
B. Your
C. Her
D. His

12. After school, we often__________ basketball together.

A. do
B. play
C. have
D. study

13. Don’t be __________! Share your food with your brother, Sam!

A. confident
B. lazy
C. selfish
D. happy

14. My best friend __________ big brown eyes and a round face.

A. has
B. does
C. gets
D. takes

15. We do_________ in the gym every afternoon.

A. table tennis
B. football
C. judo
D. homework

C. READING

I. Choose the best option marked A, B , C or D for each gap to complete the passage (1.5 pts)

Minh lives (1) _____ his parents in a lovely apartment in Ho Chi Minh City. His apartment is not very big (2) _____ it is comfortable. There are five rooms in the apartment: a living room, two bedrooms, a kitchen and a bathroom. The living room is the (3) _____ of all. The bathroom is very beautiful. It has a sink, a tub and a shower. The kitchen (4) _____ very modern and has everything: refrigerator, washing machine, dishwasher, gas cooker, electric stove, kitchen table, etc. Minh’s bedroom is not large, but it is very bright and its colors are nice. Minh (5) _____ his apartment a lot.

1. A. in 2. A. but 3. A. big 4. A. be 5. A. like

B. on B. and B. bigger B. is B. likes

C. to C. or C. biggest C. are C. liked

D. with D. so D. smallest D am D. love

II. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer A, B , C or D for each question. (1.5 pts)

Hi, my name is Anna. There are six people in my family: my grandmother, my grandfather, my mother, my father, my elder brother and me. My grandparents are old and retired. They love gardening and doing morning exercise. My father is forty-one and he is a doctor. He works in a big hospital. My mother is thirty-eight. She is an Art teacher. She teaches in a secondary school. My elder brother is Jack. He is sixteen and he is a high school student. I’m ten and I’m the youngest in my family. Our family lives in a small but it’s lovely. There is a living room, two bedrooms, a bathroom and a kitchen in my house. However, the thing I love best is the garden behind the house. I like to relax in the garden on weekends.

1. How many people are there in Anna’s family?

A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

2. Who loves gardening and doing morning exercise?

A. Anna’s parents
B. Anna’s grandparents
C. Anna’s brother
D. Anna

3. Where does Anna’s father work?

A. in a high school
B. in a secondary school
C. in the garden
D. in a big hospital

4. How many rooms are there in Anna’s house?

A. seven
B. six
C. five
D. four

5. What does Anna like to do on weekends?

A. relax in the garden
B. do the housework
C. do morning exercise
D. do gardening

C. WRITING

Question 1. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one. (1pts)

1. My house has five rooms, three bed rooms, a living room, and a bath room

=> There are …………………………………………….………………

2. My favorite subject is English

=> The subject I like ………………………………………………….

3. My mother is a teacher

=> My mother works ………………………………………………

4. My house is in front of a stadium

=> There is a ………………………………………………………….

5. You don’t need to bring candles

=> I think you don’t ……………………………………………….

VII. Complete the sentences using the words given. (1.0 pts)

My friend’s name / Hoa. / She/ in/ Class 6B. / she/tall. / She/ have/ chubby face/ and/ short black hair. / She/ very friendly. / She/ often/ go to school/ bicycle./ She/ love/ sports. / Her favourite sport/ badminton. At home/ She/ often/ help/ her mother/ do/ the housework. / She/ always/ feel/ happy.

Đáp án đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6

PART	CONTENT	POINT
A. LISTENING	I. Listen write the name or numbers. (1pts) 1. A2. C3. B4. A 5. B	0,2
	II. Listen and give short answers to these questions. (1pts) 1. 9 ( nine ) 2. BLONDE 3. Blue 4. 3 ( three) 5. 4 (four)	0,2
B. LANGUAGE	Choose the best option to complete each sentence. Circle A, B, or C. 1. B 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. D 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. C	0,2
C. READING	IV. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks(1.5 pts) 1.D 2.A 3.C 4.B 5.B	0,3
	V. Read the text about Anna’s houseand mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions. (1.5 pts) 1.B 2.B 3.D 4.C 5.A	0,3
D. WRITING	VI. Rewrite the sentences that is closest in meaningto each of the following questions, using the words given at the end of each sentence (1.0 pt) 1. There are five room in my house, three bed rooms, a living room, and a bath room 2. The subject I like best / most is English 3. My mother works as a teacher 4. There is a stadium behind my house 5. I think you don’t have to bring candles.	0,2
VII. Complete the sentences using the words given. (1.0 pt) My friend’s name is Hoa. She is in Class 6B. She is tall. She has a chubby face and long black hair. She is very friendly. She often goes to school by bicycle. She loves sports. Her favorite sport is badminton. At home, she often helps her mother do the housework. She always feels happy.	0,1/ correct clause (grammar, spelling, punctuation…)

Ma trận đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6

UBND HUYỆN….. TRƯỜNG THCS ……..

MA TRẬN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ I NĂM HỌC 2023– 2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6 – THỜI GIAN: 60’

TT		Kĩ năng	Mức độ nhận thức										Tổng
			Nhận biết			Thông hiểu		Vận dụng		Vận dụng cao
			Tỉ lệ (%)	Thời gian (phút)		Tỉ lệ (%)	Thời gian (phút)	Tỉ lệ (%)	Thời gian (phút)	Tỉ lệ (%)	Thời gian (phút)		Tỉ lệ (%)	Thời gian (phút)
1		Listening	12 (6 ý)	7		8 (4 ý)	6	20	13
2		Language	18 (9 ý)	8		12 (6 ý)	7	30	15
3		Reading	9 (3 ý)	4		9 (3 ý)	5	12 (4 ý)	7	30	16
4		Writing	2 (1 ý)	1		4 (2 ý)	3	4 (2 ý)	5	10(1 bài)	7		20	16
Tổng			41	20		33	21	16	12	10	7		100	60
Tỉ lệ (%)			41			33		16		10			100
Tỉ lệ chung (%)			74					26					100

Bản đặc tả đề kiểm tra giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6

TT

Kĩ năng

Đơn vị kiến thức/kỹ năng

Mức độ kiến thức, kĩ năng cần kiểm tra, đánh giá

Số câu hỏi theo mức độ nhận thức

Tổng Số CH

Nhận biết

Thông hiểu

Vận dụng

Vận dụng cao

TN

TL

TN

TL

TN

TL

TN

TL

TN

TL

I.

LISTENING

1. Nghe một đoạn hội thoại/ độc thoại trong 1.5 -2.0 phút (khoảng 80 – 100 từ) để chọn đúng các đáp án theo tranh.

Nhận biết: Nghe lấy thông tin chi tiết và tranh .

5

5

Thông hiểu: Hiểu nội dung chính của đoạn độc thoại/ hội thoại để tìm câu trả lời đúng.

Vận dụng: – Nắm được ý chính của bài nghe để đưa ra câu trả lời phù hợp. – Tổng hợp thông tin từ nhiều chi tiết, loại trừ các chi tiết sai để tìm câu trả lời đúng.

2. Nghe một đoạn hội thoại/ độc thoại khoảng 1.5 phút (khoảng 80 – 100 từ) lấy thông tin điền vào chỗ trống

Nhận biết: – Nghe lấy thông tin chi tiết.

1

1

Thông hiểu: – Hiểu nội dung chính của đoạn độc thoại/ hội thoại để tìm câu trả lời đúng.

4

4

Vận dụng: – Nắm được ý chính của bài nghe để đưa ra câu trả lời phù hợp. – Tổng hợp thông tin từ nhiều chi tiết, loại trừ các chi tiết sai để tìm câu trả lời đúng.

II.

LANGUAGE

Vocabulary Từ vựng đã học theo chủ đề: My house; My new school; My friends;

Nhận biết: Nhận ra, nhớ lại, liệt kê được các từ vựng theo chủ đề đã học.

9

9

Thông hiểu: – Hiểu và phân biệt được các từ vựng theo chủ đề đã học. – Nắm được các mối liên kết và kết hợp của từ trong bối cảnh và ngữ cảnh tương ứng.

Vận dụng: – Hiểu và vận dụng được từ vựng đã học trong văn cảnh (danh từ, động từ, tính từ và trạng từ…)

Grammar: Các chủ điểm ngữ pháp đã học. Present Simple; Possessive Case; Prep of place; Present Continuous; Adverb of Frequency

Nhận biết: Nhận ra được các kiến thức ngữ pháp đã học.

Thông hiểu: Hiểu và phân biệt các chủ điểm ngữ pháp đã học.

6

6

Vận dụng: – Vận dụng những điểm ngữ pháp đã học.

C.

READING

I. Cloze test Hiểu được bài đọc có độ dài khoảng 80-100 từ về các chủ điểm đã học: My house

Nhận biết: Nhận ra được các thành tố ngôn ngữ và liên kết về mặt văn bản.

2

2

Thông hiểu: Phân biệt được các đặc trưng, đặc điểm các thành tố ngôn ngữ và liên kết về mặt văn bản.

1

1

Vận dụng: Sử dụng các kiến thức ngôn ngữ và kỹ năng trong các tình huống mới.

2

2

II. Reading comprehension Hiểu được nội dung chính và nội dung chi tiết đoạn văn bản có độ dài khoảng 100-120 từ, các chủ điểm có trong chương trình (tiêu đề, từ quy chiếu, từ đồng nghĩa, 1 thông tin chi tiết có trong bài)

Nhận biết: Thông tin chi tiết.

1

1

Thông hiểu: Hiểu ý chính của bài đọc.

2

2

Vận dụng: – Đoán nghĩa của từ trong văn cảnh. – Hiểu, phân tích, tổng hợp ý chính của bài để chọn câu trả lời phù hợp.

2

2

Nhận biết: Nhận ra từ trái nghĩa

1

1

D.

WRITING

1. Sentence transformation Viết lại câu dùng từ gợi ý hoặc từ cho trước Prep. of place; Suggestion Expression; Adverbs of frequency; Possessive form; Present simple

Thông hiểu: Sử dụng các từ đã cho để đặt thành câu đơn hoàn chỉnh.

2

2

Vận dụng: Hiểu câu gốc và sử dụng các từ gợi ý để viết lại câu sao cho nghĩa không thay đổi.

2

2

2. Sentence Building Sử dụng từ/ cụm từ gợi ý để viết câu Present Simple; Prep; Article; verb form..

Vận dụng cao: – Sử dụng các từ, cụm từ đã cho để đặt thành câu đơn hoàn chỉnh (bổ sung liên từ, giới từ, mạo từ… cần thiết)

1 bài

1 bài

Tổng

18

1

13

2

4

2

1 bài

40 + 1 bài

Đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2023 – 2024 – Đề 2

Đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6

I. Find the word that has different sound from the others by circling A, B, C or D.

1. A. camp	B. vocabulary	C. villa	D. band
2. A. arms	B. ears	C. eyes	D. lips
3. A. kitchen	B. choir	C. children	D. chair
4. A. oranges	B. places	C. faces	D. lakes
5. A. study	B. club	C. uniform	D. funny

II. Choose the correct answer to complete each sentence by circling A, B, C or D.

1. Which word is different from the others?

A. rubber
B. ruler
C. compass
D. bicycle

2.They are healthy. They do…………………….. everyday.

A. football
B. physics
C. judo
D. breakfast

3.Look! They boys…………football in the schoolyard.

A. playing
B. is playing
C. are playing
D. play

4. My sister……………….. TV every night.

A. watch
B. watches
C. watching
D. is watching

5. My friends want to study in a/an………………………. school because they want to learn English with English speaking teachers there.

A. national
B. international
C. creative
D. boarding

6. Are there three………………in the living room?

A. lamp
B. lamps
C. a lamp
D.an lamp

7.The sink is next……. the fridge.

A. to
B. on
C. in
D. between

8. We live in the mountainous area and we live in a………………. house

A. villa
B. town
C. stilt
D. apartment

9. Mai and Lan……………… a picnic tomorrow.

A. have
B. has
C. having
D. are having

10. Odd one out:

A. sofa
B. attic
C. bathroom
D. kitchen

III. Put the verbs in the right forms.

1. They (do) ___ their school project now.

2. Listen! My students (play) _____the piano in the music room.

3. My mother always (tell) _____me stories before I go to bed.

4. It (not, rain) _____________________ at present.

5. My father (not, go) ______to work by car every day.

6. Quynh (have) _______ Maths, English on Mondays?

IV. Read the passage then answer the questions below.

Hi! I am Vinh. I come from Da Nang, Viet Nam. I like English and I go to English club everyday. My friends like English, too. It is very interesting to learn English. My English teacher is great and funny. She always makes our English lessons new and different. A lot of tourists come to Da Nang every year, so we have more chances to practice our English. This Saturday I am going to Han River with my parents to watch the international firework competition. I hope I am meeting many English people there.

1.Which subject does Vinh like?

………………………………………………………………………………………………

2.Is it interesting to learn English?

………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Where is Vinh going to this Saturday?

………………………………………………………………………………………………

V. Read the passage then choose the right answer to complete each blank.

Da Lat is nice. It’s cool all year round! There ..(1)… a lot of things to see and lots of tourists, too. There are ten rooms in the Crazy House hotel. They are named ..(2)… different animals. There is a Kangaroo room, an Eagle room, and even an Ant room. I am staying in the Tiger room. It’s called the Tiger room …(3)…..there is a big tiger on the wall.

The Tiger room is ..(4)….the bathroom door and the window. The bed is under the window- but the window is a strange shape. I put my books ..(5)… the shelf. There is a lamp, a wardobe … (6).. a desk. There are clothes on the floor – it’s messy, just like my bedroom at home.

1. A. is	B. are	C. am	D. is not
2. A. after	B. at	C. on	D. in
3. A. but	B. and	C. because	D. with
4. A. next to	B. between	C. behind	D. under
5. A. on	B.in	C. after	D. with
6. A. call	B. and	C. with	D. near

Đáp án đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6

I. Find the word that has different sound from the others by circling A, B, C or D.

1 – C; 2 – D; 3 – B; 4 – D; 5 – C;

II. Choose the correct answer to complete each sentence by circling A, B, C or D.

1 – D; 2 – C; 3 – C; 4 – B; 5 – B;

6 – B; 7 – A; 8 – C; 9 – D; 10 – A;

III. Put the verbs in the right forms.

1 – are doing; 2 – are playing; 3 – tells;

4 – is not raining; 5 – doesn’t go; 6 – Does Quynh have;

IV. Read the passage then answer the questions below.

1 – He likes English.

2 – Yes, it is.

3 – He is going to Han river with his parents.

V. Read the passage then choose the right answer to complete each blank.

1 – B; 2 – A; 3 – C; 4 – B; 5 – A; 6 – B;

Đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2023 – 2024 – Đề 3

Đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6

I. Choose the word which has a different sound in the part underlined.

1. A. st u dy	B. m u m	C. men u	D. s u bject
2. A. gramm ar	B. st ar t	C. p ar t	D. sh ar pener
3. A. villa s	B. light s	C. clock s	D. cap s
4. A. b i g	B. p i ck	C. th i n	D. wr i te
5. A. l i ke	B. m y	C. th i ngs	D. k i nd

II. Choose the correct answer.

1. The students can ____________ quietly in the school library.

A. do

B. go

C. have

D. study

2. My grandpa often ___________morning exercises.

A. do

B. does

C. have

D. play

3. Is Peter’s room big ____ small?

A. and

B. but

C. or

D. for

4. This ______ my new friend, Phong.

A. be

B. am

C. are

D. is

5. ________ do you go to school? – By bike.

A. How

B. Why

C. What

D. Which

III. Give the correct form of the word in bracket.

1. Look! Hung _______ football now. (play)

2. Phong ________ drinking coke. (like)

3. There ______ many flowers in the garden. (be)

4. _____ you often ______ comic books? (read)

5. Children like ___________ cartoon film. (watch)

IV. Reorder the words to make sentences.

1. do/ get up/ What time/ in the morning/ you/ ?/

___________________________________

2. school/ at/ every day/ My/ 5 p.m/ finishes/ ./

___________________________________

3. does/ teacher/ Where/ live/ your/ ?

___________________________________

4. What/ favorite/ your/ kind of/ is/ music/ ?

___________________________________

5. is/ table/ a bag/ There/ the/ on/ ./

___________________________________

Đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6

I. Choose the word which has a different sound in the part underlined.

1 – C; 2 – A; 3 – A; 4 – D; 5 – C;

II. Choose the correct answer.

1 – D; 2 – B; 3 – C; 4 – D; 5 – A;

III. Give the correct form of the word in bracket.

1. Look! Hung __is playing_____ football now. (play)

2. Phong ____likes____ drinking coke. (like)

3. There ___are___ many flowers in the garden. (be)

4. ___Do__ you often ___read___ comic books? (read)

5. Children like _______watching____ cartoon film. (watch)

IV. Reorder the words to make sentences.

1 – What time do you get up in the morning?

2 – My school finishes at 5 p.m every day.

3 – Where does your teacher live?

4 – What is your favorite kind of music?

5 – There is a bag on the table.

Đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2023 – 2024 – Đề 4

Đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three in each question.

1. A. s u bject B. f u nny C. comp u ter D. l u nch

2. A. c a lculator B. f a st C. f a r D. cl a ssmate

3. A. table s B. sofa s C. room s D. sink s

4. A. lamp s B. wardrobe s C. desk s D. light s

5. A. p sychology B. p ossible C. p atient D. p resent

II. Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence below.

1. It is a difficult calculation. Can I borrow your _______?

A. calculator

B. ruler

C. pencil case

D. school bag

2. Duyen’s friends are waiting for him to put on his _______ so they can go to school together

A. notebook

B. uniform

C. subject

D. exercise

3. After school, they usually _______ soccer

A. do

B. study

C. make

D. play

4. In _______ lesson, they learn about the events in the past.

A. music

B. science

C. history

D. English

5. Water _______ at 100 degree Celsius.

A. boil

B. will boil

C. boils

D. is boiling

6. Every day he _______ at the factory, but today he ________ at the office.

A. works, is working

B. work, works

C. is working, is working

D. is working, works

7. Students in my school often ____ lunch in the school canteen.

A. will have

B. have

C. are having

D. has

8. Who is this poster? – It’s …………….

A. of Trung

B. Trung’s

C. Trungs’

D. Trung of

III. Read the following passage and choose the option (A, B, C or D)

Hi there, I’m Hung, I have a sister, Van. We have different hobbies. I spend time (1)……… my family most evenings. At (2) ……………….. weekend, I hang out with my friends at the park or in the playground. If it rains, I like to go to (3) …………. a film with my friends. My sister belongs to a drama club.

The club meets twice a month, and once a year they go (4) ……………They stay in tents on a (5…………….. and have picnics and barbecues. My sister is a friendly person. We get on well with each other.

1. A. with B. to C. of D. in

2. A. a B. the C. an D. ø

3. A. learn B. play C. do D. see

4. A. camp B. to camp C. camping D. camps

5. A. lovely camp site B. lovely site camp C. camp lovely site D. site lovely camp

IV. Rewrite the sentence without changing the meaning.

1. My favorite room in the house is the kitchen.

I ___________________________________________

2. The garden is in front of the building.

The building ________________________________

3. Mr. Tu rides to school with me.

Mr. Tu goes _________________________________

4. Lan’s eyes are big and black.

Lan ____________________________________

5. His favourite subject at school is Mathematics

Mathematics __________________________________

Đáp án đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three in each question.

1 – C; 2 – A; 3 – D; 4 – B; 5 – A;

II. Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence below.

1 – A; 2 – B; 3 – D; 4 – C;

5 – C; 6 – C; 7 – B; 8 – B;

III. Read the following passage and choose the option (A, B, C or D)

1 – A; 2 – B; 3 – D; 4 – C; 5 – A;

IV. Rewrite the sentence without changing the meaning.

1. My favorite room in the house is the kitchen.

I _____like the kitchen in the house._______

2. The garden is in front of the building.

The building _______is behind the garden.______

3. Mr. Tu rides to school with me.

Mr. Tu goes ___ to school with me by bike._________

4. Lan’s eyes are big and black.

Lan _____has big black eyes________

5. His favourite subject at school is Mathematics

Mathematics ___is his favourite subject _____

Đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2023 – 2024 – Đề 5

PHÒNG GD&ĐT……

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA LUYỆN KỸ NĂNG LÀM BÀI THI KẾT HỢP KTĐG GIỮA KỲ I, NĂM HỌC 2023 – 2024 Môn: Tiếng Anh 6 (GLOBAL – HOÀNG VĂN VÂN) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

I. LISTENING: (2pts)

Part 1: Listen and circle the correct answer A, B or C. (1pt)

1. Which is Sue’s toy?

A. It’s a toy bus.
B. It’s a plane
C. It’s a train.

2. Where are Tom’s trousers?

A. In the cupboard.
B. On the floor.
C. In the bathroom.

3. Which book does Sam want?

A. A book on cars.
B. A book on animals.
C. A book on sports.

4. What can Ben’s Mum do?

A. Ride a horse.
B. Play the piano.
C. Paint pictures.

Part 2: Listen and write names or numbers. (1 pt)

Example: Name: Lucy_____ Flynn_____

Which class ?	(1)	__________
When :	(2)	Saturday __________
Name of teacher :	(3)	Mr __________
Come to centre by	(4)	__________

II. Choose A, B, C or D whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (1pt)

1. A. smart B. classmate C. carton D. glass

2. A. rubber B. lunch C. subject D. ruler

3. A. plays B. wants C. books D. works

4. A. climb B. clulb C. blonde D. bedroom

III. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences below (2 pts).

1. They sometimes go _________with their friends.

A. judo
B. exercise
C.fishing
D. homework

2. Mai is ________. She usually helps her mother do the housework.

A. hard – working
B. lazy
C. talkative
D. funny

3. Tim ________ tall and thin with big blue eyes.

A. is
B. has
C. are
D. have

4. She is a good student. She _________ does her homework on time.

A. usually
B. never
C. rarely
D. sometimes

5. There is a clock _____the picture and the photo.

A. on
B.under
C. between
D. in front of

6. Whose is this schoolbag? It is ______.

A. of Nga
B. Nga’s
C. Ngas’
D. Nga is

7. I usually ______ badminton with my friends in the afternoon.

A. play
B. have
C. do
D. study

8.Phong: Hi, Duy. Nice to meet you. – Duy: Hi, Phong. ______.

A. You’re welcome
B. Nice to meet you, too.
C. The same to me.
D.Welldone!

IV. Put the verbs in brackets into the correct tenses. (1 pt)

1. Hanh usually (read) comic books in her free time. –

>………………………………………………….

2. Look! The girls (take) some photos in the garden. –

>………………………………………………..

3. There (be) some ceiling fans and a TV in my classroom –

>………………………………………….

4. My brother (not/ walk) to work every day. ->…………………………………………………

V. Read the passage and decide which answer A, B, C or D best fits each space. (1pt)

Hi. I am Lan. I would like to tell you about my new (1) ______ It is in a quiet place not far from the city center. It (2) ______ three buildings and a large yard. This year there are 22 classes with more than 700 students in my school. Most students are hard-working and serious. My school has about 40. They are all helpful and (3)_____ . My school has different clubs: Dance, English, Arts, Football and Basketball. I like English, so I joined the English club. I love (4) ______school because it is a good school.

1. A. hospital B. market C. school D. library

2. A. are B. have C. is D. has

3. A. fun B. friendly C. friend D. care

4. A. I B.my C. mine D. her

VI. Read the following passage and do the tasks below.(1 pt)

Jim’s favorite room in his house is his bedroom. It is a great place for study and sleep. It is a bit small. It has a bookshelf, a desk and two chairs. There is a nice lamp on the desk. There is an air-conditioner above the wardrobe. There are three pictures on the wall. They are next to a big clock. The room has two windows and a door leading to the balcony. Jim likes his bedroom very much because it is quieter and brighter than other rooms in the house. However, in the future, he wants a bigger room with a TV in it.

* Part 1: Decide whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F). (0,5 pt)

1. _________ Jim’s bedroom has a bookshelf, a desk and four chairs.

2. _________ Jim likes his bedroom very much.

* Part 2: Circle the best answer (A, B, C or D) for each question. (0,5pt)

3. What is there on the desk?

A. Some books
B. A picture
C. A lamp
D. A bookshelf

4. Is his bedroom big?

A. No, there isn’t.
B. Yes, it is.
C. No, he isn’t.
D. No, it isn’t.

VII. Complete the sentences using the suggested words. (0.5 pt)

1. There is a big garden in my new school.

→ My new school has_______________________________________________.

2. Why don’t we go out for dinner tonight?

→ How about _______________________________________________?

VIII. Arrange the words given to make meaningful sentences (0.5pt)

1. I/ country/ house / in/ near / live/ a/ lake / a /.

→ ___________________________________________________________

2. are/ in / there /rooms / his / seven / house/.

→ ___________________________________________________________

IX. Write a short paragraph (about 50-60 words) about your best friend (1.0 pt)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….