Bộ đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2022 – 2023 (Sách mới) 7 Đề kiểm tra tiếng Anh lớp 7 học kì 1 (Có ma trận, đáp án)

Bộ đề thi tiếng Anh 7 học kì 1 năm 2022 – 2023 bao gồm 7 đề có đáp án chi tiết kèm theo bảng ma trận đề thi.

Đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 7 được biên soạn bám sát nội dung chương trình trong sách giáo khoa chương trình mới. Thông qua 7 đề thi tiếng Anh 7 học kì 1 sẽ giúp quý thầy cô giáo xây dựng đề kiểm tra theo chuẩn kiến thức và kỹ năng, giúp phụ huynh kiểm tra kiến thức cho các con của mình. Đặc biệt giúp các em luyện tập củng cố và nâng cao kỹ năng làm quen với các dạng bài văn để làm bài kiểm tra học kì 1 đạt kết quả tốt. Vậy sau đây là nội dung chi tiết TOP 7 đề thi học kì 1 tiếng Anh 7 năm 2022 – 2023, mời các bạn cùng tải tại đây.

Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 7 sách Kết nối tri thức

Đề kiểm tra giữa kì 1 Global Success 7

PART A. LISTENING (1,5 points)

I. Listen to the conversation between Liam and Chau. Circle the best answer A, B, or C. You will listen TWICE.

1. What time will Liam be free on Sunday? (B)

A. Before 10 a.m.
B. After 4 p.m.
C. At 3.30 p.m.

2. What does Liam hope to see in the water puppet show? (B)

A. The puppeteers’ control of the puppets on the water.
B. The smooth movements of the puppeteers.
C. The rural scenes of old Vietnamese villages.

3. What food will Chau and Liam have before the show? (H)

A. Beef noodle soup.
B. Hot dogs.
C. Hamburgers.

II. Listen to the talk about taking advantage of things around you. Tick (v) T (True) or (F) False. You will listen TWICE.

T	F
1. ________ You can use new glass bottles to grow herbs and flowers in. (B)
2. ________ You can make house models withice cream sticks and coloured straws. (B)
3. ________ Collecting some seashells in the sand makes you bored while you’re cleaning the beach. (H)

PART B. LANGUAGE (2,5 points)

I. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.

1. A.watched B. phoned C. preferred D. followed (B)

2. A. midterm B.pepper C. prefer D. preserve (B)

II. Choose the correct answer to complete each of the sentences.

1. Hoa looks red. She was outdoors yesterday. Perhaps she has ________. (H)

A. flu
B. sunburn
C. spots
D. stomachache

2. He is a great artist. He can _____________ in both _____________. (H)

A. carved – eggshell
B. plant – wood and eggshells
C. plant – stone and eggshells
D. carve – wood and eggshells

3. They are very _____________ about their volunteer program. (H)

A. excited
B. excite
C. exciting
D. excitement

4. My son usually _____________ his homework in the evenings. (H)

A. do
B. does
C. did
D. is doing

5. I have got _____________ apple in my bag. (B)

A. a
B. an
C. the
D. no article

6. What delicious food! _________ your mother _________ it? (H)

A. Does/cook
B. Will/cook
C. Did/cook
D. Is/ cooking

7. Your sister likes cooking, and I do,_____________. (B)

A. so
B. either
C. too
D. neither

8. Who _____________ the garden when you are away? (H)

A. looked after
B. will look at
C. looked at
D. will look after

PART C. READING COMPREHENSION (2,0 points)

I. Choose the correct word for each blank in the following passage.

A recent report showed which countries were the healthiest to live in. It included things like how long people live and what kind (1)_____________ health problems they have. Some of the countries on the list were Australia, Italy and France ; and Japan was at (2)_____________ top. In Japan, more people live to be over eighty years old than in any other countries. Part of the reason is that people have a very (3)_____________ diet. They eat a lot of fish and vegetables. They don’t eat much red meat and cheese . We don’t all have to (4)_____________ in Japan to be healthier, but we should definitely all eat more fish and do more exercise , too.

1. A. of B. with C. on D. from (B)

2. A. a B. an C. the D. no article (B)

3. A. healthy B. awful C. exciting D. bad (H)

4. A. living B. lived C. live D. to live (B)

II. Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question.

October 27th, 2018

Dear Anna,

How are you? I’m fine. I am very busy with school and my hobbies. I have basketball practice twice a week – every Tuesday and Thursday afternoons. I play basketball quite well. Each practice is two hours and then I have to go home and do my homework. Every Friday we have a Maths quiz (a short exam). So I have to work extra hard on school work after my basketball Thursday practice. I’m quite good at Maths. Also, every Saturday morning I enjoy jogging around the park. I like taking my dog, Jimmy, with me. We like running quickly together. ….

Yours,

Diana

1. Who writes the letter? (B)

A. Anna
B. Diana
C. both of them
D. none of them

2. What sports does Diana play twice a week? (B)

A. baseball
B. football
C. basketball
D. badminton

3. When does Diana play sports? (B)

A. Monday and Thursday
B. Sunday and Thursday
C. Wednesday and Thursday
D. Tuesday and Thursday

4. How does Diana study Maths? (H)

A. quite well
B. quite badly
C. quite quickly
D. quite slowly

PART D. WRITING (2,0 points)

I. Find out the mistake.

1. Did (A) you buy some (B) bottles of (C) water for a (D) picnic yesterday? (B)

2. Because (A)the (B)car was expensive, my (C) uncle bought it (D) yesterday. (H)

3. They didn’t go (A) fishing (B) two days (C) ago, and so did we. (B)

4. David’sparents (A) usually goes (B)for a walk in the park (C) near their (D) house. (H)

II. Rewrite the following sentences so that the second sentence means exactly the same as the sentence before it.

1. This film is different from the one I saw last night. (VD)

– This film is not _____________________________________________.

2. This exercise is more difficult than that one. (VD)

– That exercise is not __________________________________________.

PART E. SPEAKING (2,0 points)

Topic 1. Talk about your favourite hobby.

Question 1. Do you think that someone has to take up doing something interesting in her/ his free time? Why? / Why not?

Question 2. Do you think your hobby will be useful to others? Why? / Why not?

Topic 2. Talk about how to stay healthy.

Question 1. Do you think doing outdoor activities will help you stay healthy? Why? / Why not?

Question 2. Do you think staying healthy will help your life become meaningful? Why? / Why not?

Ma trận đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 7

TT	Kĩ năng	Mức độ nhận thức								Tổng
		Nhận biết		Thông hiểu		Vận dụng		Vận dụng cao
		Tỉ lệ (%)	Thời gian (Phút)	Tỉ lệ (%)	Thời gian (Phút)	Tỉ lệ (%)	Thời gian (Phút)	Tỉ lệ (%)	Thời gian (Phút)	Tỉ lệ (%)	Thời gian (Phút)
1	Nghe	10	6	5	4	15	10
								2	Ngôn ngữ	15	12	10	8	25	20
3	Đọc	15	10	5	5	20	15
								4	Viết	10	5	10	5	20	15
5	Nói	10	10	20
					Tổng		40	20	30	20	20	10	38	60
Tỉ lệ (%)		40		30		20		10		100
Tỉ lệ chung (%)		70				30				100

Bảng mô tả đề kiểm tra giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 7 – Global Success

TT	Kĩ năng	Đơn vị kiến thức/kỹ năng	Mức độ kiến thức, kĩ năng cần kiểm tra, đánh giá	Số câu hỏi theo mức độ nhận thức								Tổng số CH
				Nhận biết		Thông hiểu		Vận dụng		Vận dụng cao
				TN	TL	TN	TL	TN	TL	TN	TL	TN	TL
I.	LISTENING	1. Nghe một đoạn hội thoại giữa Liam và Châu để chọn câu trả lời đúng có liên quan đến các chủ đề “Music and Arts”	Nhận biết: Nghe để chọn thông tin chi tiết	2	2	0
			Thông hiểu: – Hiểu nội dung chính của đoạn hội thoại để tìm câu trả lời đúng.	1	1	0
			Vận dụng:	0	0
		2. Nghe một đoạn độc thoại liên quan đến chủ đề “Hobbies”,	Nhận biết: – Nghe lấy thông tin để chọn câu Đúng hay Sai	2	2	0
			Thông hiểu: – Hiểu nội dung chính của đoạn độc thoại/ hội thoại để xác định được câu Đúng hay Sai.	1	1	0
			Vận dụng:	0	0
II.	LANGUAGE	1. Pronunciation : – Phát âm cuối “ed” của động từ có quy tắc ; nguyên âm ” /ə/ và /ɜ:/ ” (MCQ)	Nhận biết: – Nhận biết cách phát âm “ED” thông qua các từ vựng theo chủ đề đã học.	2	2	0
			Thông hiểu: –	0	0
			Vận dụng:	0	0
		2. Vocabulary Từ vựng đã học theo chủ đề “Hobbies”, “Health”, “Community Service”, “Food and Drink”, “A Visit To A School” (MCQ)	Nhận biết:	0	0
			Thông hiểu: – Hiểu và phân biệt được các từ vựng theo chủ đề chủ đề “Hobbies”, “Healthy”, “Community Service”, “Food and Drink”, “A Visit To A School” – Nắm được các mối liên kết và kết hợp của từ trong bối cảnh và ngữ cảnh tương ứng.	2	2	0
			Vận dụng:	0	0
		3. Grammar Article: a, an, the, a lot of, lots of, a few, too, so, Word form Present tense	Nhận biết: – Nhận ra được các kiến thức về a, an, the, some, any, either, neither, too, so	2	2	0
			Thông hiểu: – Hiểu và phân biệt thì Quá khứ đơn hoặc HT đơn, Tương lai đơn	4	4	0
			Vận dụng:	0	0
			III.	READING	1. Cloze test Hiểu được bài đọc có độ dài khoảng 80-100 từ về các chủ điểm “Healthy Living”	Nhận biết: – Nhận ra được các thành tố ngôn ngữ và liên kết về mặt văn bản.	3	3	0
Thông hiểu: – Phân biệt được các đặc trưng, đặc điểm các thành tố ngôn ngữ và liên kết về mặt văn bản.	1	1				0
Vận dụng:	0	0
2. Reading comprehension Hiểu được nội dung chính và nội dung chi tiết đoạn văn bản có độ dài khoảng 100-120 từ, xoay quanh các chủ điểm “Hobbies”.	Nhận biết: – Thông tin chi tiết	3			3	0
	Thông hiểu: – Hiểu ý chính của bài đọc và đưa ra câu trả lời phù hợp. – Hiểu được nghĩa tham chiếu. – Loại trừ các chi tiết để đưa ra câu trả lời phù hợp	1			1	0
	Vận dụng:	0			0
IV.	WRITING	Nhận biết: Xác định lỗi sai về ” some/ any ; either/ neither”	2	2	0
		1. Error identification Xác định lỗi sai	Thông hiểu: – Xác định lỗi sai về sự hòa hợp thì hiện tại đơn; cách dùng từ kết nối (although, however)	2	2	0
		2. Sentence transformation Viết lại câu dùng từ gợi ý hoặc từ cho trước	Vận dụng: – Hiểu câu gốc và sử dụng các từ gợi ý để viết lại câu sao cho nghĩa không thay đổi. ( So sánh hơn -> So sánh không bằng/ different from -> not the same as)	2	0	2
		Vận dụng cao:
V.	SPEAKING	0	0
Trình bày chủ đề về “Hobbies” hoặc “Healthy Living”	0	0
	Nhận biết:	0	0
	2. Topic speaking	Thông hiểu: – Sử dụng kiến thức ngôn ngữ đã học để nói theo chủ đề. Vận dụng: – Sử dụng từ vựng và cấu trúc linh hoạt, diễn tả được nội dung cần nói theo những cách khác nhau. Phát âm tương đối chuẩn.	6	0	6
	3. Q&A	Vận dụng cao: – Hiểu và trả lời được câu hỏi của bạn cùng nhóm và trả lời một cách linh hoạt. Sử dụng ngôn ngữ một cách tự nhiên và thuần thục.	2	0	2
Tổng		16	0	12	0	0	8	0	2	28	10

Đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 7 Chân trời sáng tạo

Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 7 năm 2022

PHÒNG GD&ĐT……… TRƯỜNG……….

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KỲ I NĂM 2022 – 2023 MÔN TIẾNG ANH 7 Thời gian…. phút

Listen to five airport announcements. Choose the correct answer, A, B or C.

Announcement A

1. What time does the flight begin?

A. 9:00

B. 9:15

C. 9:25

Announcement B

2. What do passengers need to have?

A. Boarding passes

B. Passports

C. Both A and B

Announcement C

3. Which gate should Gemma and Ryan come to right immediately?

A. Gate

B. Gate 14

C. Gate 40

Announcement D

4. What is the flight number?

A. Flight KL1050

B. Flight KN1051

C. Flight KN1055

Announcement E

5. What is the temperature in New York now?

A. 73º

B. 67º

C. 76º

Listen again and complete the table with the words in the box.

Flight  EZ9753     bad weather      gate 6       gate 21         18:30

Announcement A

6. This flight is delayed by two hours because of _______________.

Announcement B

7. Flight FR3421 now boarding at _______________ .

Announcement C

8. This is the final boarding call for passengers Gemma and Ryan Grey flying to Athens on ____________ .

Announcement D

9. All passengers with express boarding tickets and passengers travelling with young children please go to _______________.

Announcement E

10. People have landed at JFK airport in New York where the local time is _______________ .

PRONUNCIATION

Choose the word whose bold part is pronounced differently from others. Write A, B, C or D in the blank.

1.A. climb   B. like   C. find   D. sit

2. A. head   B. meat   C. wear   D. bear

3.A. sand   B. hand   C. man   D. small

Choose the bold word that has a different stress pattern from the others. Write A, B, or C in the blank.

4.

A. happy

B. slowly

C. polite

D. badly

5.

A. comfortable

B. successful

C. creative

D. enormous

USE OF ENGLISH

Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence.

1. The woman was ______ on the bed.

A. lying

B. kicking

C. holding

2. Her students _________ books at 9 a.m. yesterday.

A. was reading

B. were reading

C. read

3. The phone ______ while she was sleeping.

A. ring

B. rang

C. was ringing

4. We need to be ______ to take photos of wild animals.

A. polite

B. patient

C. rude

5. They can think _________ to find the new solution.

A. happily

B. creatively

C. rudely

6. The woman ______ at the supermarket last Sunday.

A. was

B. were

C. be

7. In the past, _________ people couldn’t attend universities.

A. cruel

B. poor

C. rich

8. There______ many toys in his bedroom when he was a child.

A. was

B. be

C. were

9. My sister _________ there for one hour and waited for him.

A. met

B. stayed

C. gave

10. My family members _________ happy with the film last night.

A. were

B. was

C. be

11. In 1500 Leonardo da Vinci _________ a flying machine.

A. wrote

B. ruled

C. invented

READING

Read the passage and decide whether each statement is True or False. Write True or False in each blank.

Vietnamese Mid-Autumn Festivals

The way people celebrate Mid-Autumn Festival differs from generation to generation as society keeps moving forward. Although traditional Mid-Autumn celebration activities for children and families are not so popular nowadays as they used to be decades ago, the timeless cultural value of truth, goodness, and beauty are always honoured, and practiced in a variety of ways.

There is something new about today’s Mid-Autumn Festival. It’s the presence of colourful electronic lanterns that play music, aside from the traditional star-shaped paper-and-bamboo lanterns, and a lot of baked and white mooncakes with flavours that better meet consumers’ changing tastes. Just like many other traditions, Mid-Autumn Festival has changed to catch up with the modern life.

1. People celebrate Mid-Autumn Festival differently.

2. The culture is not honoured.

3. Modern lanterns can play music.

4. Mooncakes are served in the festival.

Choose the option that best completes each blank in the passage. Write A, B, or C in the blank.

Thanksgiving Day

American (5) the Thanksgiving holiday on the fourth Thursday of November. Families meet for a special meal including turkey, corn, potatoes and pumpkin pie – a (6) dessert. Then families do activities together or watch TV.

The Thanksgiving festival celebrates the first harvest of the Pilgrims – a group of religious settlers. In September 1620, they (7) England for America on a ship – the Mayflower. That winter, when they arrived, they were very cold and didn’t have enough food. So half of them died. A Native American leader, Squanto, (8) the settlers. His people showed the settlers how to grow corn and vegetables and how to hunt animals for food.

In Autumn 1621, after a good harvest, the Pilgrims held a big celebration to thank God. They invited the Native Americans. For three days, they ate together. Also, they (9) games, sang songs and danced. It was the start of a long tradition.

5.

A. celebrate

B. play

C. get

6.

A. kind

B. uncommon

C. popular

7.

A. arrived

B. left

C. went

8.

A. came

B. cooked

C. visited

9.

A. played

B. met

C. helped

WRITING

Rearrange the words in a correct order to make a complete sentence.

1. his parents / talk / Tom/ did / to / ?

2. she / apples / does / bananas / or / like / ?

3. visited / Jeremy / summer / Vung Tau / last / .

4. go / your / where / mother / did / shopping / ?

5. we / last weekend / ate / a / at / restaurant / .

Rewrite the following sentences with the given beginning in such a way that the meanings stay unchanged.

6. It is difficult to take photos of wild animals.

It is not ________________________

7. Sportsmen usually move fast.

Sportsmen don’t usually ____________________

8. Photographers need to think creative to take good photos.

Photographers think ____________________________________________

9. You need to wait for a long time.

You need to be ____________________________________________

10. Photographers also need to sit quietly.

Photographers should find a _______________________________________

Đáp án đề thi cuối kì 1 Tiếng Anh 7

LISTENING

1. C

2. C

3. B

4. A

5. C

6. bad weather

7. gate 21

8. flight EZ9753

9. gate 6

10. 18:30

Listening Transcript:

A: Good morning. This is an announcement for all passengers travelling on the 9:25 flight TOM1223 to Rome. This flight is delayed by two hours because of bad weather.

B: Would all passengers travelling to Tokyo on flight FR3421 please have your boarding passes and passports ready for boarding. Flight FR3421 now boarding at gate 21.

C: This is the final boarding call for passengers Gemma and Ryan Grey flying to Athens on flight EZ9753. Your flight is ready to leave. Please go to gate 14 immediately. The doors of the plane will close in five minutes. Final boarding call for passengers Gemma and Ryan Grey.

D: This is an announcement for passengers travelling to Amsterdam on flight KL1050. Will all passengers with express boarding tickets and passengers travelling with young children please go to gate 6 for boarding. That’s all passengers with express boarding tickets and passengers travelling with young children go to gate 6 for boarding. Thank you.

E: Good evening, ladies and gentlemen. We have landed at JFK airport in New York where the local time is 18:30 and the temperature is 76º. We hope you have enjoyed your flight with American Airlines this evening and wish you a very safe journey to your final destination.

PRONUNCIATION

1. D

2. B

3. D

4. C

5. A

USE OF ENGLISH

1. A	2. B	3. B	4. B	5. B	6. A
7. B	8. C	9. B	10. A	11. C

READING

1. True	2. False		3. True		4. True
5. A	6. C	7. B		8. C	9. A

WRITING

1. Did Tom talk to his parents?

2. Does she like apples or bananas?

3. Jeremy visited Vung Tau last summer.

4. Where did your mother go shopping?

5. Last weekend, we ate at a restaurant.

6. It is not easy to take photos of wild animals.

7. Sportsmen don’t usually move slowly.

8. Photographers think creatively to take good photos.

9. You need to be patient.

10. Photographers should find a quiet place to sit.

………………

Đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 7 i-Learn Smart World

Đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 7 i-Learn Smart World

I. Find the word which has a different sound in the part underlined.

1. A. tea	B. sea	C. health	D. team
2. A. listen	B. mind	C. like	D. rice
3. A. wanted	B. visited	C. needed	D. played
4. A. cat	B. cinema	C. classroom	D. carving

II. Choose the odd one out.

1. A. envelope B. stamp C.letter D. coach

2. A. friend B. uncle C. father D. sister

3. A. room B. picture C. house D. apartment

4. A. songbooks B. guitar C. equation D. music

III. Choose the most appropriate word or phrase to fill in each blank. (2.5 ms)

1. ………………………. milk does she want? – A little.

A. How many

B. How much

C. How often

D. How long

2. In Physics, we learn……………………….how things work.

A. at

B. about

C. on

D. in

3. Catherine is English and……………………….

A. so am I.

B. I am too.

C. so do I.

D. A & B are correct.

4. I’ll soon have a……………………….holiday

B. 2-weeks holiday

C. 2- week holidays

D. 2-weeks holidays

5. A holiday by the sea is……………………….than a holiday in the mountains.

A. good

B. best

C. better

D. the best

6. There are……………………….expensive new flats next to the river.

A. some

B. little

C. much

D. any

7. If you want to find the meaning of new words, you can use a……………………….

A. picture book

B. story

C. dictionary

D. workbook

8. Most of the children enjoy……………………….Cartoon Network channel.

A. watch

B. to watch

C. are watching

D. watching

IV. Rewrite the following sentences so that the second sentence means the same as the first one.

1. Where does he live?

-> What ……………………………………………………………………………………..?

2. Your book is newer than my book.

-> My book …………………………………………………………………………….

3. These books are so interesting .

-> What ……………………………………………………………………………………!

4. Why don’t we go to the beach ?

-> What about ………………………………………………………………?

V. Read the passage, and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D tor each question.

The Temple of Literature is about 10 minutes away from Hoan Kiem Lake. It was constructed in 1070 under Ly Thanh Tong’s dynasty, first to honor Confucius and nowadays to celebrate the doctorate and high rank scholar of Vietnam. In 1076, Emperor Ly Nhan Tong continued the work and built the Imperial Academy as the first university of Vietnam.

The Temple is divided into five courtyards. The first courtyard is from the main gate to Dai Trung Gate. The second is with Khue Van Pavilion. The pavilion symbol is used on the street signs of Ha Noi. The third courtyard is the place where the doctorate names were listed on the stone tablets above tortoise backs. The fourth courtyard is dedicated for Confucius and his 72 honored students, as well as Chu Van An – one of the most famous teachers at the Imperial Academy. The last is also the farthest courtyard is Thai Hoc House, which was used as the Imperial Academy. Thai Hoc House holds a small collection of old-time costumes for students and scholars.

1. Where is the Temple of Literature?

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2. When and by whom was it built?

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3. How many courtyards are there in the Temple of Literature?

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4. Which courtyard is with Khue Van Pavilion?

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5. What is the Pavilion symbol used on?

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Đáp án đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 7 i-Learn Smart World

I. Find the word which has a different sound in the part underlined.

1. C 2. A 3.D 4. B

II. Choose the odd one out.

1. D 2. A 3. B 4. C

III. Choose the most appropriate word or phrase to fill in each blank. (2.5 ms)

1. B 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. C 8. D

IV. Rewrite the following sentences so that the second sentence means the same as the first one.

1. What is your address?

2. My book is older than your book

3. What interesting books.

4. What about going to the beach?

V. Read the passage, and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D tor each question.

1. It is about 10 minutes away from Hoan Kiem Lake.

2. It was constructed in 1070 under Ly Thanh Tong’s dynasty.

3. There are five courtyards.

4. The second is with Khue Van Pavilion.

5. It is used on all street signs of Ha Noi.

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