Bạn đang xem bài viết ✅ Bộ đề thi học kì 1 môn tiếng Anh 11 năm 2023 – 2024 (Sách mới) 9 Đề thi tiếng Anh 11 sách Global Success, i-Learn Smart World, English Discovery, Bright ✅ tại website Wikihoc.com có thể kéo xuống dưới để đọc từng phần hoặc nhấn nhanh vào phần mục lục để truy cập thông tin bạn cần nhanh chóng nhất nhé.

Đề thi học kì 1 tiếng Anh 11 năm 2023 – 2024 bao gồm 9 đề kiểm tra khác nhau có đáp án giải chi tiết kèm theo.

Đề thi cuối kì 1 Tiếng Anh 11 được biên soạn với cấu trúc đề rất đa dạng, bám sát nội dung chương trình học trong sách giáo khoaGlobal Success, i-Learn Smart World, Explore New Worlds, Friends plus, English Discovery, Bright. Thông qua đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 11 các em có thêm nhiều đề ôn luyện làm quen với kiến thức để không còn bỡ ngỡ trước khi bước vào kì thi chính thức. Đồng thời giúp giáo viên tham khảo để ra đề thi cho các em học sinh của mình. Vậy sau đây là nội dung chi tiết TOP 9 đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 11 năm 2023 – 2024, mời các bạn cùng theo dõi tại đây. Bên cạnh đó các bạn xem thêm đề thi học kì 1 Toán 11.

1. Đề thi học kì 1 tiếng Anh 11 Global Success

1.2 Đề kiểm tra học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 11

Full name: ……………………………………………….

Class: …………………………………………………….

School: …………………………………………………

Mark:

I. LISTENING (2.5 points)

TASK 1 Listen to the conversation between a student and an interviewer. Circle the best answer A, B, or C. You will listen TWICE.

1. When did Kim and Mr Lee meet for the first time?

A. Before they wrote to each other about environmental issues.
B. After communicating with each other via email.
C. In the previous important interview.

2. Why did Kim get chosen for the interview?

A. She had applied many times before.
B. She was one of the few candidates that applied.
C. She was passionate about environmental issues.

3. Why does Kim care about the environment?

A. Because she grew up in a polluted area.
B. Because she loves the beach.
C. Because she knows how to positively affect our environment.

4. What happens to Kim’s clean-up campaign?

A. She still joins on weekends.
B. She is still the organiser.
C. It’s still going strong without her.

5. What is Kim’s plan after joining our organisation?

A. She wants to tackle a different bigger issue.
B. She wants to continue her programme in Khanh Hoa.
C. She wants to organise a national clean-up programme.

TASK 2 Listen to some information about global warming and complete a student’s note. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER in each blank. You will listen TWICE.

Student’s note
GLOBAL WARMING

Global temperature has risen (1) ___________ Celsius every decade.

Caused by human activities such as (2) __________________.

About (3) ___________ per cent of people over 55 considered global warming the top priority.

Some elderly people think it’s unnecessary to change their environmentally unfriendly (4) ___________.

More and more (5) ____________________ have introduced policies to limit global warming.

II. READING (2.5 points)

TASK 1 Read the passage. Circle the best answer A, B or C to each of the questions.

Carbon footprint is one of the main contributors to global warming. As mentioned in the media, members of the public are widely advised to reduce their carbon footprint and the specific steps to cut it down can be followed easily.

First, carbon dioxide is largely emitted from fossil fuel combustion in transportation, so people can shift away from petro used cars to eco-friendly vehicles running on electricity or clean ethanol. Driving less is another way to lessen a significant amount of exhaust fumes. It’s encouraged to ride electric bikes to work for short distances and take a train or a bus for long journeys. Second, lowering energy waste at home can make a big difference. Considering household appliances like lights or TVs, when they are not in use, homeowners should switch off them and better to remove their plugs from the sockets to save more energy. According to a report, homeowners can save between $100 and $200 each year by doing so. In addition, it’s wasteful to set your fridge and freezer temperatures lower than necessary, staying between 35° and 38°F to keep fresh food and 0 degrees for freezers. Last but not least, about 268 million tons of trash a year is produced by the U.S. Reducing energy consumption by recycling, therefore, can help slash greenhouse gas emissions substantially. Besides, shoppers should take reusable bags or canvas to the stores and avoid single-use containers.

In short, through these simple tips and concerted efforts, this environmental issue is no longer pressing.

1. What is the passage mainly about?

A. Easy ways to reduce the negative impacts of global warming.
B. Carbon emissions originating from the households.
C. Intelligent ways to consume environmentally friendly products.
D. Certain tips to lower people’s carbon footprint.

2. What does the word they in line 11 mean?

A. Sockets.
B. Homeowners.
C. Household appliances.
D. Sources of energy.

3. According to the passage, why should people choose to use more green vehicles?

A. To contribute to the reduction in exhaust fumes.
B. To help reduce traffic congestion in the rush hour.
C. To lower the cost of energy.
D. To ensure their safety when travelling for long distances.

4. Which of the following statements is NOT given in the passage?

A. The ideal temperatures to keep food fresh in the fridge.
B. The number of trash generated by Americans.
C. The prices of reusable bags or bottles.
D. The amount of money people can save when turning off household appliances.

5. Which of the following is TRUE about the passage?

Tham khảo thêm:   Bài thu hoạch đổi mới căn bản toàn diện giáo dục và đào tạo Mẫu bài thu hoạch Nghị quyết 29 về đổi mới giáo dục

A. The public isn’t responsible for reducing their environmental impact.
B. Driving less means getting rid of all the petrol cars.
C. Customers had better buy products made from plastic materials.
D. Unplugging the TV after watching programmes can help you put aside more money.

TASK 2 Complete the reading passage. Write ONE suitable word in each blank.

In many metropolitan areas, city planners are drawing up construction plans to turn their residence (1) ___________ smart liveable cities. Besides applying the latest technological advances, adopting a green lifestyle is regarded as an important factor of their designing projects. For instance, Bristol in England now has a lot of cycle lanes separated from the traffic, and the city council have been (2) ___________ possible measures to improve safety and facilities with the aim of becoming a cycle-friendly city in the future. Korean Songdo District is another example. (3) ___________ of using rubbish trucks, it has a modern central rubbish collecting system that sucks waste out of each home. In this central depository, waste (4) ___________ automatically treated, sorted and recycled efficiently. This contributes to creating a sustainable and eco-friendly community. In Singapore, growing vegetables in rooftop gardens is an option that can solve the problem of lack of (5) ___________. This intelligent form of urban agriculture can meet citizens’ need of eating clean food and help prettify tall buildings there.

III. WRITING (2.5 points)

TASK 1 For each question, complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the first. Use the word in brackets and do not change it. Write NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS.

Example:

0. I started taking a fitness course two months ago.

I _______________ a fitness course for two months. (TAKEN)

Answer: 0. have taken

1. Mary last fiercely argued with her parents when she was in high school. (HAS)

Mary ____________________ argument with her parents since she was in high school.

2. Sam isn’t interested in preparing for the ASEAN competition. (MAKING)
____________________ the ASEAN competition doesn’t interest Sam.

3. Many students were concerned about climate change, so they decided to take part in this environmental campaign. (CONCERNED)

____________________, many students decided to take part in this environmental campaign.

4. Due to their reduction in the use of plastic items, the family was honoured in their own community. (REDUCING)

____________________ items, the family was honoured in their own community.

5. Could you put away those documents over there? (MIND)

Would ____________________ those documents over there?

TASK 2: Write a proposal (120-150 words) for a new recycling programme at your school.

You can use the following questions as cues.

-How is the recycling system at your school?

-What are the benefits of recycling at schools?

-What does the school do?

-What do students do?

…………

1.2 Đáp án đề thi cuối học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 11

I. LISTENING

TASK 1

1. B 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. C

Script:

Mr Lee:

Hello, Kim. Sorry for being late. Have you been waiting long?

Kim:

It’s alright, Mr Lee. I’ve just arrived.

Mr Lee:

It’s great to finally meet you in person after communicating via email for so long.

Kim:

It’s an honour to be interviewed by you. My dream has always been volunteering for an international organisation.

Mr Lee:

As you know, our programme is very popular. You stand out among other candidates thanks to your passion for environmental issues. Can you tell me where that’s coming from?

Kim:

Growing up in the coastal town of Khanh Hoa, I saw the negative impact of human activities on our environment. The beach near my house looked and smelt awful and the shore was covered with waste. Then I realised that I had to do something to save the beach landscape.

Mr Lee:

You organised some clean-up activities in your community, right?

Kim:

We used to pick up trash along the beach at weekends. Although I’m no longer the organiser, the campaign is still going strong.

Mr Lee:

Amazing. You really made a big impact. What will you do if you join our organisation?

Kim:

I want to continue to do what I’ve been doing but on a bigger scale. My goal is to start a national clean-up programme.

Mr Lee:

Let’s talk more about …

TASK 2

1. 0.18 degrees

2. burning fossil fuels

3. 50

4. habits

5. countries and governments

Script:

Per decade since 1981, Earth’s temperature has risen 0.18 degrees Celsius. This number may seem small to some people, but scientistsknow how disastrous this increase has been for our environment. This is called global warming and it is primarily caused by human activities, especially burning fossil fuels. Across the globe, we see the consequences such as natural disasters, ice melting and rising sea levels…

Although its importance can’t be understated, there seems to be a generational difference regarding this issue. According to a survey, more than 70 per cent of young people considered global warming the top priority while only about 50 per cent of people over 55 agreed with this statement. One of the main reasons is that some older people tend not to believe in the negative results of global warming and consider it a problem for the far future, so they don’t think it’s necessary to change their environmentally unfriendly habits.

However, the good news is that people’s opinion on this issue is changing. With more scientific evidence and growing public support, global warming has become a top issue for many countries and governments. We’re adopting more policies that help protect the environment and cut down on greenhouse gasses.

II. READING

TASK 1

1. D 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. D

TASK 2

1. into

2. taking

3. Instead

4. is

5. space

III. WRITING

TASK 1

1. has not had a fierce

2. Making preparations for

3. Concerned about climate change

4. Reducing the use of plastic

5. you mind putting away

TASK 2

Sample writing

Title: RECYCLING PROGRAMME

To: Principal Anderson

Prepared by: Green Club

Recycling reduces our carbon footprint and helps protect our natural resources. However, the recycling system at our school is outdated and trash collected at our school usually ends up in landfills.

Representing the Green Club, I propose a plan for a new recycling programme. A large percentage of school waste is recyclable so we can make a huge impact on the environment with this programme. At the same time, promoting the importance of recycling also encourages students to do it at home.

As part of this programme, recycling bins will be placed in classrooms and the number of trash bins around the campus should also increase. Once a month, Green Club will organise a recycling event where students can help separate recyclable materials.

Tham khảo thêm:   Kinh nghiệm khám phá Viện Hải dương học Nha Trang từ A tới Z

I hope to receive your approval on this and start the programme as soon as possible.

IV. LANGUAGE FOCUS

TASK 1

1. B 2. D 3. A 4. C

TASK 2

  1. D
  2. 2. A

3. C

4. D

5. B

6. C

TASK 3

1. has to

2. not submitting

3. Supported

4. Celebrating

5. increasing

6. have tried

7. to use

8. looks

9. suffered

10. has become

……………

2. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 11 i-Learn Smart World

2.1 Đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh lớp 11

SỞ GD – ĐT ……..

TRƯỜNG THPT ……….

Họ và tên:………………………………….…….

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KÌ 1 NĂM HỌC 2023 – 2024

MÔN: Tiếng Anh 11 ISW

Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút (đề có 32 câu)

(Không kể thời gian giao đề)

I . USE OF ENGLISH ( 0,25/each)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 1. ASEAN includes ten member states, but may get bigger because other countries have applied to join the ____.

A. bloc
B. group
C. gang
D. troop

Question 2. Children with cognitive impairments may have ____ in learning basic skills like reading, writing, or problem solving.

A. difficulty
B. difficult
C. ability
D. able

Question 3. In spite of being the new resident in this area, he always tries to ____ with his neighbours.

A. catch up
B. go in
C. put up
D. get along well

Question 4. I don’t know what to say to break the ____ with someone I’ve just met at the party.

A. air
B. ice
C. leg
D. rule

Question 5. – “Shall we join the Green Summer Camp after the semester finishes?”

A. That’s a great idea!
B. They’re very good!
C. Not at all!
D. No, let’s!

Question 6. Thanks a lot for helping me fix the car yesterday.

A. I’d love to.
B. You’re welcome.
C. Of course not.
D. I like it.

II . READING ( 0,25/each)

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

LUDWIG VAN BEETHOVEN (1770-1827)

Beethoven is widely regarded as one of the greatest composers in history. He gave his first public (7) ____ as a pianist when he was only 8 years old. He studied in Vienna under the guidance of Mozart. By his mid-twenties he (8) ____ a name for himself as a great pianist known for unpredictable and brilliant improvisations. In 1796, Beethoven began losing his hearing. (9) ____ his illness, he involved himself in his work and (10) ____ some of the greatest works of music. Beethoven’s finest works are also the finest works of their kind in music history: the 9th Symphony, the 5th Piano Concerto, the Violin Concerto, the Late Quartets, and his Missa Solemnis. And be achieved all these despite being completely (11) ____ for the last 25 he years or so of his life.

Question 7. A. perform B. performance C. performing D. performer

Question 8.A. had earned B. earned C. has earned D. was earning

Question 9. A. In case of B. Instead of C. In order to D. In spite of

Question 10. A. did B. created C. painted D. learned

Question 11. A. deaf B. mute C. blind D. sick

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Humanitarian Dorothea Dix was born in Hampden, Maine, in 1802. At the age of 19, she established a school for girls, the Dix Mansion School, in Boston, but had to close it in 1835 due to her poor health. She wrote and published the first of many books for children in 1824. In 1841, Dix accepted an invitation to teach classes at a prison in East Cambridge, Massachusetts. She was deeply disturbed by the sight of mentally-ill persons thrown in the jail and treated like criminals. For the next eighteen months, she toured Massachusetts institutions where other mental patients were confined and reported the shocking conditions she found to the state legislature. When improvements followed in Massachusetts, she turned her attention to the neighbouring states and then to the West and South.

Dix’s work was interrupted by the Civil War; she served as superintendent of women hospital nurses for the federal government.

Dix saw special hospitals for the mentally-ill built in some fifteen states. Although her plan to obtain public land for her cause failed, she aroused concern for the problem of mental illnesses all over the United States as well as in Canada and Europe.

Dix’s success was due to her independent and thorough research, her gentle but persistent manner, and her ability to secure the help of powerful and wealthy supporters.

Question 12. In what year was the Dix Mansion School closed?

A. 1802
B. 1824
C. 1835
D. 1841

Question 13. Why did Dorothea Dix first go to a prison?

A. She was convicted of a crime.
B. She taught classes there.
C. She was sent there by the state legislature.
D. She was doing research for a book.

Question 14. Where was Dorothea Dix first able to bring about reforms in the treatment of the mentally-ill?

A. Canada
B. Europe
C. Massachusetts
D. The West and the South

Question 15. The word “confined” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____.

A. restricted
B. treated
C. cared for
D. supported

Question 16. Dorothea Dix was NOT successful in her attempt to ____.

A. arouse concern for the mentally-ill
B. become superintendent of nurses
C. obtain public lands
D. publish books for children

III. LISTENING ( 0,25/each )

Part 1. Listen to Dan and Natalie trying to decide what to watch on TV, then tick A, B, C or D for each of the questions. (1.25 points)

Question 17. The program Dan wants to watch later is ………

A. the news
. B. a documentary.
C. a film.

Question 18. They don’t watch the football because

A. it has already started.
B. Natalie doesn’t enjoy sports programs.
C. Dan doesn’t want to watch it.

Question 19. The Frank Wilson quiz show starts at

A. 8:30
 B. 9:00.
C. 9:30

Question 20. Natalie…………………………………..

A. has definitely watched the quiz show before. 
B. doesn’t remember whether she’s watched the quiz show before.
C. doesn’t like quiz shows in general.

Part 2: You will hear a radio programme in which young people from different parts of the country are interviewed. Fill each of the blanks with ONE suitable word.

Man: Hello and welcome to our series about young people living in different parts of the country. Today you’ll hear Mike Davis, who lives in Hereford, telling you something about his life.

Tham khảo thêm:  

Boy: Hello. I’m 13 years old and I go to Stanley School. I’m in Form 3, and I’m really interested in (21) ……………….but I find maths and especially English a bit hard. I’m good at (22) ………………. and I’ve run for the school team in the 800 metres.

My dad sells farm machinery. We live in the country about four miles from school, so I get to school by bicycle. My uncle has a farm and I spend most of my free time helping out there. He’s got 50 cows and I like to help him with them. I help to do the (23) ………………. every Saturday and sometimes I have to clean the cowshed. It’s hard work, but it’s good to see everything looking (24) ……………….. I painted it white last summer – I’m good at painting. My uncle’s got a tractor and he says I can drive it when I’m 15. I’m looking forward to that.

IV. GRAMMAR ( 0,25/each)

Give correct tenses / forms of the verbs in brackets

Question 25. She apologised for (keep)___________ me waiting so long.

Question 26. . I ( volunteer) ____ to help students at a special school twice since I ( finish)______ grade 11..

Question 27. . I’m sorry (hear) ____ that your enterprise has been declared bankrupt.

Question 28.Turn off the air-conditioner. It’s_____________(get) cold here.

V. WRITING( 0,25/each)

Put the words in the correct order to make sentences.

Question 29. I /missing/the first event of Hue Festival/ regret.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

Question 30. You/ Have/ worked/ ever/ disabled people/ with / a volunteer/ as .?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

Rewrite the sentences, using the cues given.

Question 31. Mai passed the exam. She was so happy. ( Adj + toV)

…………………………… ……………………………………………………………………..

Question 32. We started working on this programme five years ago

We have …………………………………………………………………………………………

2.2 Ma trận đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 11

Chủ ðề

Nội dung

Nhận biết

Thông hiểu

Vận dụng

Vận dụng cao

Tổng điểm

Số câu

Tỉ lệ %

Use of Language (1)

Lexico (TN)

– word definition

– collocation

– Word forms

Unit 1- 5

1

2

1

1,5

6

18

Language function (TN)

Give correct response to exchanges

+ suggestion, agreement/disagreement, advice, thanking

1

1

Reading

Option Multiple choice gap –filling (140 words)

Unit 1 – 5

1

2

1

1

2,5

10

32

Read the passage and choose the best answer (260 words)

Unit 1 – 5

1

1

2

1

Listening

Dialogue (MCQ-3 options)

Unit 1 – 5

1

2

1

2.0

8

25

Monologue (Gapped) (TL)

Unit 1 – 5

2

1

1

Use of Language (2)

Grammar (TL)

+ Gerunds

+ Past simple & present perfect

+ To-inf after Adj/N

+Linking verbs

1

2

1

1.0

4

12,5

Writing

Ordering ( TL)

+ Gerunds

+ Past simple & present perfect

1

1

1.0

4

12,5

Sentence transformation ( TL)

+ To-inf after Adj/N

+ Past simple & present perfect

1

1

Total Number

Total Weight

9

13

7

3

8.0

32

100

28

41

22

9

100

3. Đề thi cuối kì 1 tiếng Anh 11 English Discovery

3.1 Đề thi cuối kì 1 tiếng Anh 11

SỞ GD-ĐT

TRƯỜNG THPT ………

*************

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CHẤT LƯỢNG HỌC KỲ I KHỐI 11

NĂM HỌC 2023 – 2024

Môn: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian: 45 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Question 1: Choose a word in each line that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest:

1. A. agree B. arrange C. area D. award

2. A. changeable B. chemistry C. champion D. church

3. A. usually B. unhealthy C. usefulness D. university

4. A. whole B. whale C. water D. window

Question 2: choose a word in each line that has the different stress pattern.

5. A. floppy B. idol C. cotton D. decide

6. A. extremely B. excited C. personal D. imagine

7. A. sneaky B. notice C. open D. around

8. A. birthday B. reply C. schoolbag D. money

Question 3: Choose the best answer to fill in each gap to complete the sentences.

9. Those ladies often go to pagoda to pray _______ happiness and luck.

A. for
B. to
C. on
D. into

10. Of the three sisters, Mary is the most beautiful ________ .

A. someone
B. anyone
C. everyone
D. one

11. The whole family usually try to get-together at Christmas.

A. contact
B. gather
C. relate
D. communicate

12. Tet is a ________ occasiom for all members of famillies to gather.

A. special
B. specially
C. specialize
D. specializing

13-. A: Would you like some more tea?-B:_____________________

A. Yes, thanks
B. No, please.
C. Yes, please
D. You are welcome

14. Would you mind__________for a moment ?

A. waits
B. waiting
C. to wait
D. wait

15. John ____________ helping him carrying the package

A. thanked me for
B. asked me to
C. told me to thank
D. said thank you me

16. John suggested ____________to the new branch in Vietnam

A. appointing
B. to appoint
C. being appointed
D. to be appointed

17. ___________ is the day when people celebrate the largest full moon in the year

A. Thanksgiving
B. Valentine’s Day
C. Mid-Autumn Festival
D. Tet holiday

18__________out of the window, he saw the cat climbing over the fence.

A. Look
B. Being looked
C. Looking
D. To look

19. They volunteer to work in remote or_______areas to provide education for children.

A. mountain
B. mountainous
C. high
D. low

20. _______in some developing countries may be the cause of poverty and hunger.

A. Modernization
B. Literacy
C. Pollution
D. Overpopulation

21. They …. on the street when it rained

A. was walking
B. walked
C. walks
D. were walking

22. What would you like to drink? – __________

A. Thank you
B. Coffee, please
C. Yes, please
D. No, I don’t

23. How many _______ are there in the competition?

A. participates
B. participants
C. participations
D. participating

24. I would like to take part in the competitions like these?

A. contests
B. rivals
C. participation
D. races

25. My brother suggested _________ to the movies tonight.

A. to go
B. going
C. go
D. goes

26. Your idea is quite different _______ mine.

A. to
B. with
C. about
D. from

27. My friends congratulated me _______the final examination.

A. passing
B. for passing
C. about passing
D. on passing

28. The lawn needs mowing again.

A. repairing
B. making
C. bending
D. cutting

29. Banh Chung is made_________ sticky rice, green beans and fatty pork.

A. on
B. from
C. with
D. by

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

3.2 Đáp án đề thi học kì 1 tiếng Anh 11

1. C

2. B

3. B

4. A

5. D

6. C

7. D

8. B

9. A

10. D

11. B

12. A

13. C

14. B

15. A

16. C

17. C

18. C

19. B

20. D

21. D

22. B

23. B

24. A

25. B

26. D

27. D

28. D

29. B

30. B

31. B

32. B

33. B

34. B

35. A

36. C

37. A

38. A

39. D

40. A

31. B

32. B

33. B

34. B

35. A

36. C

37. A

38. A

39. D

40. A

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

4. Đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 11 Friends plus

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5. Đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 11 – Explore New Worlds

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Cảm ơn bạn đã theo dõi bài viết Bộ đề thi học kì 1 môn tiếng Anh 11 năm 2023 – 2024 (Sách mới) 9 Đề thi tiếng Anh 11 sách Global Success, i-Learn Smart World, English Discovery, Bright của Wikihoc.com nếu thấy bài viết này hữu ích đừng quên để lại bình luận và đánh giá giới thiệu website với mọi người nhé. Chân thành cảm ơn.

 

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